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BSNL TTA (Junior Engineer) 2013 Question Paper with Answers

1. The nearest correct meaning or synonym of the word ”PATRONAGE” is
a. Donation
b. Support
c. Espionage
d. Dealings
Answer: B
2. The nearest correct meaning or synonym of the word ‘TRAIT’ is
a. Symbol
b. Characteristic
c. Betray
d. Identity
Answer: B

3. The most suitable antonym of the word ‘INSTANTLY’ is
a. Repeatedly
b. Slowly
c. Immediately
d. Awkwardly
Answer: B
4. The most suitable antonym of the word ‘CONFESS’ is
a. Deny
b. Contest
c. Contend
d. Witness
Answer: A
5. Choose the correct sentence
a. Earth goes around sun
b. Earth goes around the sun
c. The earth goes around the sun
d. The earth goes around sun
Answer: C
6. He said, “I am Happy”, the indirect speech of the sentence is
a. He said that he is happy
b. He said that I am happy
c. He said that I was happy
d. He said that he was happy
Answer: D
7. I hope you will turn…… request. Choose the correct word for the blank.
a. Off
b. Aside
c. Down
d. around
Answer: C
8. The rules……….passengers to cross the railway line.
a. Advise
b. Forbid
c. Request
d. Hinder
Answer: B
9. Jaundice affects
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Intestine
d. Pancreas
Answer: A
10. Density of water is highest at
a. 50oC
b. 0oC
c. 4oC
d. – 4oC
Answer: C
11. The first woman speaker of Lok Sabha is
a. Meira kumara
b. Pratibha patil
c. Ammie besent
d. Sucheta kriplani
Answer: A
12. The brightest planet in the night sky is
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Mars
d. Moon
Answer: B
13. The national song of India is
a. Vande mataram
b. Jana gana mana
c. Inquilab zindabad
d. Saare jahan se achha
Answer: A
14. Indus valley civilisation did not know the use of
a. Copper
b. Bronze
c. Iron
d. Clay
Answer: C
15. Delhi gets rainfall in winter due to
a. North east monsoon
b. North west monsoon
c. South west monsoon
d. Westerly disturbances
Answer: D
16. The universal donor blood group is
a. O-
b. O+
c. AB+
d. AB-
Answer: A
17. The full form of CD used in computers is
a. Compact disk
b. Circular disk
c. Compressed drive
d. Concentric drive
Answer: A
18. Total number of states in India are
a. 28
b. 25
c. 30
d. 27
Answer: A
19. The largest concentration of Monazite sand is available on the sea coast of
a. Kerala
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Odisha
d. Gujarat
Answer: A
20. Among the following, who is the gold medal winner in Olympics?
a. Raj vardhan singh rathore
b. Sushil kumar
c. Vijay kumar
d. Abhinav bindra
Answer: D
PART – II: Basic Engineering
1. The shortest distance between the two points having x-y co-ordinates (9,24) and (12,20) is
a. 5
b. 1
c. 25
d. 7
Answer: A
2. The dot product of two unit vectors having directions opposite to each other is
a. 1
b. 0
c. – 1
d. Not possible
Answer: C
3. Laplace transform of t.e-at is
a. 1/s
b. a/s
c. 1/(s-a)
d. s/(s-a)
Answer: D
4. d[cos2x]/dx is
a. – sin2x
b. – sin2x
c. 2 cosx
d. Sin2x
Answer: A
5. If x = cosθ and y = sinθ, then dy/dx =
a. Tanθ
b. Cotθ
c. – tanθ
d. – cotθ
Answer: D
6. Integral of sinx is
a. Cosx + c
b. – cosx + c
c. Tanx + c
d. – tanx + c
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is correct?
a. Determinant is square matrix
b. Determinant is a number associated to a matrix
c. Determinant is a number associated to a square matrix
d. None of these
Answer: C

a. 8
b. 0
c. 0.125
d. It does not have any value
Answer: A
9. I4k+1 =?
a. 1
b. i
c. – i
d. – 1
Answer: B
10. The length of latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 4x is
a. 4
b. 16
c. 1
d. 2
Answer: A
11. A periodic waveform possessing half-wave symmetry has no
a. Even harmonics
b. Sin terms
c. Cosine terms
d. Odd harmonics
Answer: A
12. For transmission of signals, optical fibre uses
b. Ultrasound
d. Infrared
Answer: A
13. The mirage seen in a desert is due to
a. Interference
b. Reflection
c. Diffraction
d. Refraction
Answer: D
14. Which of the following is correct?
a. Light is a longitudinal electromagnetic wave
b. Light does not show particle nature
c. Speed of light changes as the medium changes
d. Light is not form of energy
Answer: C
15. Diamonds are known for their spectacular brilliance. Their brilliance is mainly due to
a. Total internal reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Fluorescence
Answer: A
16. Speed of sound in vacuum is
a. Zero
b. Same as that of the speed of light
c. Same as that in air
d. Slightly faster than the speed in air
Answer: A
17. Which of the following is not correct with respect to ultrasonic?
a. Longitudinal mechanical waves
b. frequency is higher than audible range
c. Speed is more than that of sound waves
d. Used for detection of flaws in metals
Answer: C
18. The energy of an electron in the 2nd orbit of an excited hydrogen atom is
a. – 13.6 eV
b. – 6.8 eV
c. – 3.4 eV
d. – 27.2 eV
Answer: C
19. The value of relative permittivity of vacuum is
a. 1
b. 0
c. 8.854 x 10–12
d. Infinity
Answer: A
20. The force between two point charges of 1C each separated by a distance of 3m in free space is
a. 9 x 109 N
b. 9 x 10-9 N
c. 3 x 109 N
d. 109 N
Answer: D
21. Two capacitors of 2 F each are connected in series to a 1 volt battery. The total charge supplied by the battery to capacitors is
a. 1 C
b. 2 C
c. 0.5 C
d. 0.25 C
Answer: A
22. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by the
a. Plate thickness
b. Plate area
c. Separation between plates
d. Nature of dielectric
Answer: A
23. Two resistances R and 2R are connected in parallel in an electric circuit. The thermal energy developed in R and 2R are in the ratio
a. 1:2
b. 2:1
c. 1:4
d. 4:1
Answer: B
24. Two electric bulbs of 50W and 100W are connected in series to mains. Which of the two bulbs will flow brighter?
a. 50W
b. 100W
c. Both
d. None of these
Answer: A
25. One commercial unit of electrical energy converted to joule is equal to
a. 3.6 x 106 J
b. 24 x 106 J
c. 0.36 x 106 J
d. 360 x 106 J
Answer: A
26. A parallel plate capacitor with plates separated by distance 1mm is filled with dielectric with relative permittivity 2. The electric field inside the capacitor when it is connected to 1 volt battery is
a. 1 N/C
b. 1000 N/C
c. 2000 N/C
d. 500 N/C
Answer: C
27. Kirchhoff’s Laws for current and voltages are applicable for
a. DC circuits only
b. AC circuits only
c. Circuits containing resistance only
d. Both AC and DC circuits
Answer: D
28. A charge Q is uniformly distributed on a thin metallic spherical shell of radius R. The potential V inside the sphere at a distance r from the centre is
a. Infinity
b. Q/4πϵor
c. Q/4πϵoR
d. Zero
Answer: C
29. Unit of magnetic flux is
a. Weber
b. Ampere-turn
c. Coulomb
d. Tesla
Answer: A
30. The induced EMF in a coil of 0.08 mH carrying 2A current is reversed in 0.4 seconds.
a. 0.16 mV
b. 0.4 mV
c. 0.8 mV
d. 0.064 mV
Answer: C
31. The EMF induced in a conductor of length 1m moving at right angles to a uniform magnetic field of 2 T with velocity 50 m/s is
a. 0 volts
b. 100 volts
c. 100/(4πX10-7) volts
d. 100*(4πX10-7) volts
Answer: B
32. Cells are connected in series in order to
a. Increase current rating
b. Increase voltage rating
c. Increase ampere-hour rating
d. Increase the life of cells
Answer: B
33. In the circuit shown in figure, the current I1 and I2 respectively are,
a. 4 A and 8 A
b. 2 A and 4 A
c. 4 A and 2 A
d. 6/5 A and 12/5 A
Answer: B
34. In the figure shown below,

each cell EMF is 1 volt and internal resistance is 0.1 ohm. The current in the circuit is
a. 2 A
b. 0.5 A
c. 0 A
d. 0.4 A
Answer: D

35. In a capacitor , the
a. Current leads the voltage
b. Voltage leads the current
c. Current and voltage are in same phase
d. None of the above
Answer: A
36. The equation of alternating voltage is 14.14sin50πt. The frequency and the effective value of voltage is
a. 25 Hz, 10 volts
b. 50 Hz, 10 volts
c. 50 Hz, 14.14 volts
d. 25 Hz, 14.14 volts
Answer: A
37. The direction of induced EMF is given by
a. Fleming’s right hand rule
b. Fleming’s left hand rule
c. Faraday’s law
d. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
Answer: A
38. The reactance of 1 mH inductor connected to DC supply is
a. 1 mΩ
b. Infinite
c. Zero
d. None of these
Answer: C
39. A circuit component that opposes the change in the current through it is
a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. None of these
Answer: B
40. To make silicon N-type, the dopant to be added is
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Boron
d. None of these
Answer: D
41. For a P-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. Electrons are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
b. Electrons are the minority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
c. Holes are minority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants
d. Holes are majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
Answer: B
42. When a reverse bias is applied to a PN junction, it
a. Raises the potential barrier
b. Reduces the majority carrier current to zero
c. Lowers the potential barrier
d. None of the above
Answer: A
43. For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?
a. Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations
b. The base region must be very thin and lightly doped
c. The emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is forward biased
d. Both the emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
Answer: B
44. An amplifier has gain without feedback as 100. To make it oscillate, feedback path gain B must be
a. 0.02
b. 0.01
c. 0.05
d. 0.1
Answer: B
45. When a transistor is used as a switch, its operation is confined in
a. Cut off region
b. Saturation region
c. Active region
d. Both cut off and saturation regions
Answer: D
46. Which of the following transistor circuits have lowest gain?
a. Common base
b. Common collector
c. Common emitter
d. None of the above
Answer: B
47. For germanium, the forbidden gap in eV is
a. 0.3
b. 3.5
c. 0.7
d. 1.12
Answer: C
48. The output waveform of an OP-AMP differentiator for triangular wave input is
a. Square
b. Ramp
c. Sinusoidal
d. Saw tooth
Answer: A
49. Tuned amplifiers are used for_________ amplification.
a. Wideband
b. Narrow band
c. Multiband
d. None of the above
Answer: B
50. When a bipolar transistor in cut off region, both the base emitter and base collector junctions are
a. Reverse biased
b. Forward biased
c. Not biased
d. None of these
Answer: A
51. The following oscillator is used at audio frequencies
a. Colpitt’s oscillator
b. Wien bridge oscillator
c. crystal oscillator
d. none of the above
Answer: B
52. maximum rectifying efficiency of a half wave rectifier is
a. 33.33%
b. 50%
c. 40.6%
d. 36.8%
Answer: C
53. Wein bridge oscillator uses
a. RL circuit
b. LC circuit
c. RC circuit
d. Crystal
Answer: C
54. Reverse biased Zener diode is used for
a. DC voltage regulation
b. AC voltage regulation
c. AC voltage stabilizer
d. Voltage rectification
Answer: A
55. The number of stable states in an Astable Multivibrator is
a. 2
b. 1
c. 0
d. 8
Answer: C
56. If the binary number 1110 is converted to hexa-decimal number, we get
a. G
b. D
c. E
d. F
Answer: C
57. For a JFET, if the gate voltage VGS is made more negative, then
a. The channel conductivity increases
b. Depletion region increases
c. The channel conductivity decreases
d. Channel current increases
Answer: C
58. The output of JK flip flop toggles when
a. J=1, K=0
b. J=0, K=1
c. J=1, K=1
d. J=0, K=0
Answer: C
59. The number of flip flops required to build a Mod-20 counter is
a. 4
b. 5
c. 19
d. 20
Answer: B
60. Which of the following is a minimum error code?
a. Binary code
b. Excess – 3
c. Gray code
d. Octal code
Answer: C
61. NAND operation is equal to
a. (A + B)’
b. A’ + B’
c. A’.B’
d. AB
Answer: B
62. The di/dt rating of SCR is specified for its
a. Decaying anode current
b. Decaying gate current
c. Rising gate current
d. Rising anode current
Answer: D
63. The function of a multiplexer is
a. To select one out of N input data sources and to transmit into a single channel
b. To transmit data in N lines
c. Serial to parallel conversion
d. To decode information
Answer: A
64. The gates required to build a half adder are
a. Ex-OR gate and NOR gate
b. Ex-OR gate and OR gate
c. Ex-OR gate and AND gate
d. Four NOT gates
Answer: C
65. The instantaneous voltage and current in a circuit is given by v(t) = 20 sin(100t+π/2) volts and i(t) = 10 sin(100t+π/6) amps. Then the power consumed by the circuit is
a. 200 W
b. 100 W
c. 50 W
d. 50√2 W
Answer: C
66. As frequency increases, the impedance of a RC series circuit
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
Answer: B
67. An ideal voltage source will have
a. Zero internal resistance
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. The output voltage decreasing linearly with the increase in load
d. Constant output current irrespective of load
Answer: A
68. Germanium behaves as an insulator at a temperature of
a. 273oK
b. 0 oK
c. 100 oK
d. 25 oK
Answer: B
69. When the PN junction is forward biased
a. The width of depletion layer is decreased
b. The width of depletion layer is increased
c. The width of depletion region remains same
d. None of these
Answer: A
70. Which of the following transistor circuits have lowest voltage gain
a. Common base
b. Common collector
c. Common emitter
d. None of these
Answer: B
71. A Bistable Multivibrator acts as
a. Logical switch
b. Flip flop
c. Sine wave generator
d. None of the above
Answer: B
72. The gain stability of an amplifier can be improved by using which type of feedback?
a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Answer: B
73. An oscillator uses
a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
c. Both a and b
d. No feedback
Answer: A
74. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is
a. Less than hole current in valence band
b. Equal to hole current in valence band
c. Greater than hole current in valence band
d. Equal to hole current in conduction band
Answer: C
75. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using
a. Transistors
b. Flip-flops
d. FETs
Answer: C
76. In a photo transistor, the photo current is generated at
a. Either of the junctions
b. Emitter base junction
c. Collector base junction
d. Both the junctions
Answer: C
77. In photo conductive effect, radiations of wavelength greater than critical wavelength will
a. Produce free electrons
b. Not produce free electrons
c. Emit electrons from the surface
d. Produce protons
Answer: B
78. For an ideal operational amplifier
a. Input impedance is zero
b. Output impedance is zero
c. Input impedance is infinite
d. Output impedance is infinite
Answer: C
79. Which of the following is a sequential circuit?
a. AND gate
b. NAND gate
c. EX-OR gate
d. Bistable Multivibrator
Answer: D
80. The following circuit is used for
a. Summation
b. Subtraction
c. Differentiation
d. Integration
Answer: D
81. An OP-AMP has differential gain of 100 and common mode gain of 0.01. What is the CMRR in dB?
a. 80 dB
b. 8 dB
c. 160 dB
d. 40 dB
Answer: A
82. The output waveform of an OP-AMP differentiator for triangular input waveform is
a. Square
b. Ramp
c. Sinusoidal
d. Saw tooth
Answer: A
83. Logic inverter can be constructed with
a. OR gates
b. AND gates
c. AND and OR gates
d. NOR gates
Answer: D
84. Which of the following is called as a universal gate?
a. OR gate
b. AND gate
c. NOT gate
d. NOR gate
Answer: D
85. A full adder can be constructed using two half adders and one
a. OR gate
b. NOR gate
c. AND gate
d. NAND gate
Answer: A
86. A straight conductor of 100 cm in length moves with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s at right angles to itself and to a uniform magnetic field of flux density 1 Wb/m2. The value of induced EMF between the ends of the conductor is
a. 200 volts
b. 0 volts
c. 1 volts
d. 2 volts
Answer: D
87. The flux through a 10 turn coil was changed from 1 Wb/m2 to zero at uniform rate in 10 seconds. The EMF induced in the coil during the period is
a. 1 volts
b. 0 volts
c. 100 volts
d. 0.5 volts
Answer: A
88. Which of the following is not a magnetic material?
a. Iron
b. Nickel
c. Cobalt
d. Copper
Answer: D
89. While applying Norton’s theorem to DC networks, the network is replaced by a
a. Voltage source in series with a resistance
b. Voltage source in parallel with a resistance
c. Current source in series with a resistance
d. Current source in parallel with a resistance
Answer: D
90. A voltage source is connected in series with three resistors: R1 = 10 Ω, R2 = 10 Ω, R3 = 20 Ω. A load of 20 Ω is placed in parallel with R3. The Thevenin’s resistance (RTH) seen by the load is
a. 10 Ω
b. 40 Ω
c. 30 Ω
d. 16.7 Ω
Answer: A
PART – III: Specialization
1. The phase angle between the line voltage and corresponding line current in case of balanced star connected resistive load is
a. 45o
b. 60o
c. 30o
d. 0o
Answer: C
2. The impedance of a series RC circuit is 10 Ω. If the value of resistance is 5 Ω, then power factor of the circuit is
a. 2.0 leading
b. 0.5 lagging
c. 0.5 leading
d. 1.414 lagging
Answer: C
3. A 3 phase delta connected load is consisting of a resistor of 8 Ω in series with a capacitor of 6 Ω reactance in each phase. Line voltage is 173 volt. The phase current will be
a. 10 A
b. 17.3 A
c. 12.36 A
d. 7.14 A
Answer: B
4. A 100/10 volts single phase ideal transformer is connected to a 6 Ω resistance in series with 8 Ω capacitive reactance. If RMS value of primary voltage 100 volts, the primary current will be
a. 10 A
b. 1 A
c. 0.1 A
d. 1.43 A
Answer: C
5. The function of a commutator in DC generator is
a. To improve commutation
b. To change DC to AC
c. To change AC to DC
d. To conduct current to brushes
Answer: C
6. The speed of a DC series motor decreases if the flux in the field winding
a. Remains constant
b. Increases
c. Decreases
d. None of these
Answer: B
7. The magnitude of magnetic flux in a transformer
a. Decreased with increase in load
b. Increases with increase in load
c. Is same at all loads
d. Increases as load increases from zero and remains nearly constant at high loads
Answer: C
8. An alternator running at 3000 rpm generates voltage at 50 Hz. The number of poles of the alternator will be
a. 8
b. 6
c. 4
d. 2
Answer: D
9. A synchronous motor is supplying its rated load. If excitation is increased
a. The power factor becomes more leading
b. The power factor becomes more lagging
c. The power factor remains constant
d. None of these
Answer: A
10. An induction motor has a starting torque 300 N-m, when started by direct switching. If a star delta starrer is used for starting, the starting torque will be
a. 300 N-m
b. 100 N-m
c. 173.2 N-m
d. 900 N-m
Answer: B
11. The speed of an 3 phase cage-rotor induction motor depends on
a. Frequency of the supply
b. Number of poles only
c. Number of poles and frequency of supply
d. Input voltage
Answer: C
12. The creeping error in a single phase energy meter is minimized by
a. Adjusting braking magnet
b. Use of short circuited loops on the outer limbs of the shunt magnet
c. Drilling two holes in the disc on the opposite side of the spindle
d. Adjusting the shaded band
Answer: C
13. A 100 mA meter has an accuracy of ±2%. Its accuracy while reading 10 mA will be
a. ± 2%
b. ± 0.2%
c. ± 4%
d. ± 20%
Answer: D
14. A voltmeter uses a meter with IFS = 2 mA. Its sensitivity is
a. 500 Ω/V
b. 500 V/Ω
c. 2000 Ω/V
d. 2000 V/Ω
Answer: A
15. The Q meter works on the principles of
a. Series resonant circuit
b. Parallel resonant circuit
c. Self-inductance
d. Mutual inductance
Answer: A
16. A CRO indicates
a. Peak to peak value of voltage
b. RMS value of voltage
c. Average value of voltage
d. DC value of the voltage
Answer: A
17. Schering bridge can be used to measure
a. Capacitance
b. Q of a coil
c. Very small value of resistance
d. Inductance
Answer: A
18. Lissajous patterns are used to measure
a. Voltage and frequency
b. Frequency and phase shift
c. Frequency and Q factor
d. Amplitude and flux
Answer: B
19. Which of the following devices can measure pressure directly
a. Strain gauge
c. Rotameter
d. Bourden tube
Answer: D
20. LVDT is a
a. Displacement transducer
b. Velocity transducer
c. pressure transducer
d. Acceleration transducer
Answer: A
21. Pirani gauge is used to measure
a. Very high pressure
b. Very low pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure
d. All of the above
Answer: B
22. The range of a DC ammeter may be extended by the use of
a. Shunt
b. Multiplier
c. Current transformer
d. Potential transformer
Answer: A
23. The rate of rise of restriking voltage is
a. The type of circuit breaker
b. The inductance of the system only
c. The capacitance of the system only
d. The inductance and capacitance of the system only
Answer: D
24. Capacitive current breaking results in
a. Short circuits
b. Open circuits
c. Voltage surges
d. None of these
Answer: C
25. Differential relays are used to protect the equipment
a. Internal faults
b. Reverse current
c. Over current
d. Over voltage
Answer: A
26. The lightening arrestor is connected
a. In series with the line
b. In series with the neutral line
c. Between line and earth
d. To a pole near the line
Answer: C
27. Surge protector provides
a. Low impedance to normal voltage only
b. High impedance to surge only
c. High impedance to normal voltage and low impedance to surge
d. Both a and b
Answer: C
28. The closed loop transfer function of the open loop transfer function, G(s) = k/s(1+sT) of a unity feedback system is
Answer: A

29. The transfer function V2(s)/V1(s) of the network shown below is
Answer: C

30. G(s) = (1+s)/s(1+0.5s). The corner frequencies are
a. 0 and 1
b. 0 and 2
c. 0 and – 1
d. 1 and 2
Answer: D
31. Nyquist plot of a system is shown below.
The system is
a. Marginally stable
b. Conditionally stable
c. Stable
d. Unstable
Answer: B
32. The open loop transfer function of a control system is G(s) = k/5(s+5). The number of asymptotes and the angle of asymptotes in root locus plot is
a. 2, 90o
b. 2, 60o
c. 4, 90o
d. None of these
Answer: A
33. In Bode plot, the function 1/sT has slope of
a. – 20 dB/decade
b. + 20 dB/decade
c. 6 dB/decade
d. – 6 dB/decade
Answer: A
34. If the gain of an open loop system is doubled, the gain margin
a. Is not affected
b. Gets doubled
c. Becomes half
d. Becomes one-fourth
Answer: C
35. If the open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system has phase angle of – 150o at the gain crossover frequency, the phase margin of the system is equal to
a. – 150o
b. 210o
c. 30o
d. 150o
Answer: C
36. The terms in the first column of Routh’s array of a characteristic equation are 10, 8, 5, 5,-2. The number of roots of the characteristic equation in the right half of the s-plane is equal to
a. 0
b. 2
c. 4
d. 1
Answer: D
37. The characteristic impedance of a lossless transmission line with standard parameters (R, L, G, C) is given by
a. LC
b. √(L/C)
c. LG
d. RG
Answer: B
38. It is required to match a 20 ohm load to a 500 ohm transmission line, to reduce SWR along the line to 1. What must be the characteristic impedance of the quarter wave transformer used for this purpose, if it is directly connected to the load?
a. 480 ohm
b. 1920 ohm
c. 100 ohm
d. 520 ohm
Answer: C
39. When a complex load is connected to a transmission line at very high frequencies, which one of the following is preferred for matching
a. Quarter wave transformer
b. Open circuited stub
c. Short circuited stub
d. Lumped components
Answer: C
40. If VSWR is equal to 1, the transmission line is said to be
a. Short circuited
b. Open circuited
c. Correctly terminated and there is no reflection
d. Terminated with resistive load
Answer: C
41. The modulation index of AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is
a. Unchanged
b. Halved
c. Doubled
d. Increased by 50%
Answer: D
42. An audio signal 15 sin2π1000t amplitude modulates with 60sin2π106t. the modulation index will be
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
Answer: B
43. The disadvantage of FM over AM is that
a. Noise is very high
b. Larger bandwidth required
c. High output power required
d. High modulating power required
Answer: B
44. Indicate which of the following systems is digital?
a. Pulse position modulation
b. Pulse code modulation
c. Pulse width modulation
d. Pulse frequency modulation
Answer: B
45. In pulse code modulation(PCM), what is the correct sequence of steps before a PCM signal is generated: Filtering(F), Quantization(Q), Sampling(S)
a. FQS
b. FSQ
c. QSF
d. SFQ
Answer: B
46. A USART chip provides
a. Half duplex operation
b. Full duplex operation
c. Multiplex operation
d. Simplex operation
Answer: B
47. Centre tapped transformer is used in
a. Half wave rectifier
b. Full wave rectifier using two diodes
c. Bridge rectifier
d. Silicon controlled rectifier
Answer: B
48. Which of the following systems is most noise immune?
a. SSB
b. FM
c. PCM
d. PAM
Answer: C
49. Quantization noise is produced in
a. PAM
b. PM
c. PPM
d. PCM
Answer: D
50. The details of channels in ISDN BRI is
a. 30B + D
b. 2B + D
c. 10B + D
d. 31B + D
Answer: B
51. In Klystron, the velocity modulation takes place in
a. Input cavity resonator
b. Drift tube
c. Output cavity resonator
d. Collector
Answer: A
52. The range of microwave frequency is
a. 30 MHz – 300 MHz
b. 300 MHz – 3 GHz
c. 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d. 30 GHz – 300 GHz
Answer: C
53. For rectangular waveguide, the dominant mode is
a. TE10
b. TM01
c. TEM
d. TM10
Answer: A
54. Which of the following is a cross field device?
a. TWT
b. Two cavity Klystron
c. Magnetron
d. Reflex Klystron
Answer: C
55. Directivity of an ideal directional coupler should be
a. 0
b. 1
c. Infinite
d. Negative
Answer: C
56. The wave length for microwave frequencies are
a. > 1 m
b. < 1 m
c. From 1 mm to 1 m
d. Form 0.3 m to 300 m
Answer: C
57. Choose the incorrect sentence in respect of machine language
a. Instruction format consists of OPCODE and OPERAND
b. Instructions consist of strings of binary numbers
c. Machine language instructions in binary numbers need no further translation
d. Machine language is machine independent
Answer: D
58. Assembly language uses
a. Alphanumeric mnemonic codes for instructions
b. Numeric addresses only for addresses
c. Assembler to translate machine language to assembly language
d. Numbers instead of symbols for representing instructions
Answer: A
59. Choose the incorrect sentence in respect of PASCAL and C programming languages
a. Each block of statements in PASCAL starts with a BEGIN statement
b. Each block of statements in PASCAL ends with a END statement
c. C language uses a special data type called ‘pointer’
d. C language does not require compiler
Answer: D
60. Which of the following is not a component of DBMS?
a. Data definition language
b. Data manipulation language
c. Data documentation language
d. Query language
Answer: C
61. Which of the following is not a function of communication protocol?
a. Error control
b. Flow control
c. Data routing
d. Data manipulation
Answer: D
62. Function of data link layer in OSI model is
a. Error control & flow control
b. Routing
c. Data encryption & decryption
d. File transfer
Answer: A
63. Which of the following is not correct in respect of network layer in OSI model?
a. Routing is a function of network layer
b. X.25 is a network layer protocol
c. IP is a network layer protocol
d. TCP is a network layer protocol
Answer: D
64. A device operating at network layer is called a
a. Bridge
b. Router
c. Repeater
d. HUB
Answer: B
65. An instruction register is storage for
a. Location in data memory
b. Location of instruction in memory
c. Binary code for operation to be performed
d. Address of next instruction to be executed
Answer: C
66. Stack pointer is a register which come into use
a. Whenever a data is read from memory
b. Whenever a data is written into memory
c. Whenever the output variable is sent out of CPU
d. When an interrupt of high priority call comes from external devices
Answer: D
67. In microprocessor architecture, flag indicates
a. The number of the microprocessor
b. The name of the microprocessor
c. The internal status of CPU
d. The bit size of microprocessor
Answer: C
68. Mnemonic codes are used
a. To denote address
b. To employ hamming code
c. To denote errors
d. To assist human memory
Answer: D
69. Direct Memory Access(DMA) facilitates data to move into and out of the system
a. On first come first serve basis
b. With equal time delay
c. Without sub-routine
d. Without programme intervention
Answer: D
70. How many address lines are necessary to address two megabytes (2048 KB) of memory?
a. 20
b. 21
c. 19
d. 11
Answer: B
71. READY signal in 8085 is useful when the processor communicates with
a. A slow peripheral device
b. A fast peripheral device
c. A DMA controller chip
d. A PPI chip
Answer: A
72. After completing the execution, the microprocessor returns to
a. Halt state
b. Fetch state
c. Execute state
d. Interrupt state
Answer: B
73. Choose the incorrect statement. During DMA transfer, the processor
a. Continues its normal operations
b. Suspends its normal operations
c. Needs to initiate read (write) command
d. Needs to check if the I/O device is ready for data transfer
Answer: A
74. Address bus is
a. Unidirectional
b. Bi-directional
c. Non-directional
d. Multi-directional
Answer: A
75. Maximum and minimum value of power can be
a. 1 and 0
b. 1 and -1
c. 0.8 and 0
d. Infinity and zero
Answer: A
76. CPU of a computer does not contain
a. Control unit
b. Arithmetic logic unit
c. Main memory
d. Registers
Answer: C
77. Integration of multiple related files form a
a. Record
b. Field
c. Database
d. Character
Answer: C
78. When the output voltage level of a filter decreases by 3 dB, its absolute value changes by a factor of
a. 2
b. ½
c. 1/√2
d. 1/3
Answer: C
79. In a low-pass filter, the cut off frequency is represented by the point where the output voltage reduces to ________ percent of input voltage.
a. 50
b. 70.7
c. 63.2
d. 33.3
Answer: B
80. Cache memory is logically positioned between
a. CPU registers & Main Memory
b. Main memory and secondary memory
c. Read write heads of serial access memory
d. Tracks of hard disk
Answer: A
81. The highest speed memory in a computer is
a. CPU register
b. RAM
c. Hard disk
Answer: A
82. Which of the following is the ascending order of data hierarchy?
a. Bit – byte – record – field – data base – file
b. Bit – byte – field – record – file – data base
c. Bit – byte – file – field – record – data base
d. Bit – record – byte – field – file – data base
Answer: B
83. In an entity relationship diagram, the rectangle represents
a. Entity sets
b. Data bases
c. Tables
d. Attributes
Answer: A
84. The relational data model represents the data base as a collection of ______
a. Tables
b. Trees
c. Nodes
d. None of these
Answer: A
85. PASCAL is a
a. Simple procedural language
b. Block structural procedural language
c. Object based language
d. Functional language
Answer: B
86. Which of the following is integral data type in C?
a. Void
b. Char
c. Float
d. Double
Answer: B
87. Which of the following is not a data structure operation?
a. Searching
b. Inserting
c. Deleting
d. Twining
Answer: D
88. In data structure, accessing and processing each record exactly once is called
a. Sorting
b. Searching
c. Traversing
d. Inserting
Answer: C
89. Collection of records of entities in a given entity set is called as
a. File
b. Field
c. Byte
d. Entity relation
Answer: A
90. In relational algebra, which of the following is a unary operation?
a. Set union
b. Set difference
c. Projection operation
d. Quotient operation
Answer: C